Proposition 1.1.28 is sometimes described as telling us about a "hole" in \(\mathbb{Q}\text{.}\) We’re going to fill in that hole. The most obvious way to do this might seem to be, as when we constructed \(\mathbb{Q}\) from \(\mathbb{Z}\text{,}\) simply to add some symbols. And indeed, this is a fine thing to do. If you take an abstract algebra course or two, you encounter fields like \(\mathbb{Q}\left(\sqrt{2}\right)\text{,}\) which plug holes corresponding to unsolvable equations by adding a symbol which we declare to be a solution. Galois theory is, essentially, the study of which such symbols to add in order to be able to solve various classes of equations.
If we, like Pythagoras, take "length" to mean a rational number, then the answer is: any rational number \(r\) with \(r^2\lt 2\text{.}\) On the other hand, if we move a distance \(r\) with \(r^2\gt 2\text{,}\) we’ve definitely gone too far. The sweet spot would be \(r^2=2\text{,}\) but as we saw in Proposition 1.1.28, that can’t happen. Thus we’re led to consider sets like
Let’s start thinking about subsets of an ordered field and elements that relate to those subsets. Let’s fix an ordered field \((S,+,\times,\lt)\) to work with. Throughout, when I say "set", I’ll mean "subset of \(S\)". When I say "number", I’ll mean "element of \(S\)".
As with any uniqueness proof, try to start by supposing you’ve got a set \(A\) with a maximum \(M_1\) and a maximum \(M_2\text{.}\) Then use Definition 1.2.4 to get to \(M_1=M_2\text{.}\)
Definition 1.2.4 is a bit like the phrase "punk unicorn". We understand what it means, but that’s not reason to imagine one actually exists. As Checkpoint 1.2.6 shows, some sets do not have maxima. (It’s not hard to cook up sets without minima, either.) But bounded sets like \((-2,8)\) do seem to have an edge -- namely, their endpoints. 8 is sort of like a maximum for \((-2,8)\text{;}\) the only problem is, \(8\notin(-2,8)\text{.}\)
The set \((-2,8)\) is bounded because it has an upper and a lower bound. Let’s consider two different upper bounds \(B_1\) and \(B_2\text{.}\) If I tell you that \(B_2\) is a "better" upper bound, what do I mean?
Now to show that \(-2\) is greatest amoung the lower bounds for \((-2,8)\text{.}\) Let \(b\) be some lower bound for \((-2,8)\text{.}\) Suppose, by way of contradiction, that \(b\gt -2\text{.}\) Consider the number
\(b^*\lt b\) and \(b^*\gt -2\text{.}\) Therefore \(b^*\in(-2,8)\text{;}\) but that means \(b\) couldn’t have been a lower bound for \((-2,8)\) after all.
This machine we’ve just built takes in \(a\in A\) and produces \(r\in A\) with \(r\gt a\text{.}\) Therefore, no element of \(A\) is an upper bound for \(A\).
which means that \(r^2\) is less than \(B^2\text{,}\) but not by more than one-quarter of the distance between \(2\) and \(B^2\text{.}\) So, in particular, \(r^2\gt 2\text{,}\) which means that \(r\) is an upper bound for \(A\text{.}\)
So we’ve build a machine which, given any upper bound \(B\) for \(A\) with \(B\gt 2\text{,}\) finds an upper bound which is less than \(B\text{.}\) Therefore, in order for an upper bound to be least, we need \(B^2\leq 2\text{.}\)
Taking these two into account, we see that in order to be least, a number must have \(B^2\leq 2\text{;}\) while in order to be an upper bound, a number must have \(B^2\geq 2\text{.}\) The only possibility for a least upper bound \(B\text{,}\) therefore, is one with \(B^2=2\text{.}\) But by Proposition 1.1.28, this can’t happen.
Example 1.2.17 shows that the problem we have with \(\mathbb{Q}\) can be phrased in terms of least upper bounds. That motivates the following definition:
We say that an ordered set \(S\) has the greatest lower bound property if every nonempty subset of \(S\) which is bounded below has a greatest lower bound.
For \(t\gt 0\text{,}\) we consider the set \(A_t=\left\{x\in\mathbb{R}\middle\vert x^2\lt t\right\}\text{.}\) Because \(0\in A_t\text{,}\)\(A_t\) is nonempty. \(B=t+1\) is an upper bound for \(A_t\text{.}\) Therefore, because \(\mathbb{R}\) is complete, there is a least upper bound \(s=\sup A_t\text{.}\)